I am saying that "afro" and "afri" can basically be used interchangeably. And sometimes even "Afrasian" is used instead of "Afro-Asiatic." Point is, the terms are used because this language family primarily spans North and Eastern Africa, as well as a large swath of Southwest Asia. If, as either gene cisco or exiledking has already pointed out, "afro" was used to denote the type of people who created the language, then why aren't other languages spoken in Africa, like the Bantu languages, also incorporated in the Afro-Asiatic language family?
Thanks for answering the question! So you say Hannibal was a Moor. Yet, the Moors were a Muslim group that reigned from 800 AD to 1492 AD, yet Hannibal lived from 247 BC to 181 BC. So, Hannibal lived a 1,000 years before the Moorish reign!!! And damn near 1,000 years prior to Islam!
So how the FUCK was Hannibal a Moor?!?!
What are you saying why arent other languages spoken in
Africa, these are languages spoken in Africa..
Arabic, Somali, Berber, Amharic, Oromo,Swahili, Hausa, Manding, Fulani and Yoruba....
There was a time latin was even spoken north africa...
google that shit.
and then you stated Hannibal lived a thousand years before the moorish reign...
Dude just because moors 'reigned" doesnt mean
they didnt "exist" a thousand years before...
since when do reign and existing mean the same thing...? Remember Berbers and Moors are the same people...
wanna try again mr potty mouth....
lol